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Question: i need help in this both question...

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2. Suppose f(x) is a function which is defined and continuous - and hence ought to be integrable - on all of R. Explain why we would have a problem justifying f(x) dz+ f(x) dx-f(x) dr 0 if we used the Right-Hand Rule (or any rule that relies on subdividing [a, bl into equal subintervals) as the actual definition of o f(x) da. [3) Hint. It matters here that v2 is irrational. More on page2!
3. Suppose f(x) is a function which is Riemann integrable on R. Explain why the definition of the Riemann integral does justify .0 f(x) dx +| f(x) dx =| f(x) dx . 0 Your explanation should be informal, but as complete and precise as you can.
I need help in this both question..

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