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Question: in what sense is moral virtue a meanquot according to...

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In what sense is moral virtue a “mean," according to Aristotle?

None of the above.
It corresponds to what ordinary common sense recommends in any given situation.
It is not incompatible with moderate amounts of vice.
It occupies the middle ground between excessive and deficient possibilities of feeling and acting.
It corresponds to what the average person ought to do in any given situation.

Why am I not necessarily acting immorally when I use a bank teller to cash my paycheck or a mechanic to fix my transmission?

Because both the teller and the mechanic can contractually consent in principle to being treated in this way.
Because the categorical imperative does not apply to business transactions.
Because I can give some of the money to a worthy cause.
None of the above.
These individuals who hold these sorts of positions tend not to be Kantians.

What does Frankfurt mean when he uses the term “second-order volition”?

One has a second-order volition when they want to have a certain desire over another desire.
One has a second-order volition after one engages their the capacity for firest-order volitions.
All of the above.
One has a second-order volition when they want something.
One has a second-order volition when they want a certain desire to be a part of one’s will.
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